“But (which becometh women professing godliness) with good works. Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression. Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety.” 1Tim 2:10-15
Why would Paul use the example of Eve here? Are all women in subjection as a punishment for Eve’s transgression? Does this prove she is the literal mother of all women?
Both Adam & Eve are representatives and their actions/experiences demonstrate God’s purpose with all humans. Hence Adam is a representative man, or federal head if you like, similar to Christ (Rom5:14), both of them demonstrate the God’s intention/establishment of marriage (Mark 10:6) & the relationship between husband and wife (1Tim 2:10-14).
Eve doesn’t have to be the literal mother of all of us for these principles to be set out and then applied. In the same sense a sister is a daughter of Sarah (1Pet 3:6), we are all children of Zion (Gal 4:4) and the saved are brothers and sisters of Christ (Rom 8:29).
Paul refers to the woman’s position in the ecclesia not as a consequence of Eve’s sin (which is outside of what God said in Genesis 3) but rather as an example of what may occur if a woman does not ally herself to the role Paul advocates. He is speaking specifically to women who are faithful and striving to follow the ways of God (1Tim 2:10). It reads to me that Paul is saying here that Eve overstepped her role and sinned, and that women in the ecclesia be mindful of this as they take up their roles in the ecclesia and their families.